Does Sentencing Verbage Override Plea Deal Verbage?

Greetings all, Using an anon account for obvious reasons and I need advice on my legal situation.

So a few years ago I was falsely accused of a felony crime and for several reasons I decided to take a plea deal. Right before my official sentencing my attorney added to the plea deal the following: "if allowed by law, the state agrees to a 2-step reduction down to a class A misdemeanor upon successful completion of probation without violation". The prosecutor agreed to this and signed it.

However, my official actual sentencing document officially states- "Upon successful completion of probation a Rule 402 two-step Reduction will be applied resulting in a Class A Misdemeanor."

My probation and everything was completed a little over a year ago with zero issues. My attorney recently reached out to the prosecutor about my reduction but they are now claiming that I cannot get a reduction due to legal technicalities. They claim my offense is not eligible for a reduction.

This seems like an odd issue. If my sentencing document states plainly that my charges will be reduced as long as I successfully complete probation- which I did- then how can they pull this bs? Doesnt the sentencing document outweigh the verbage used in the plea deal?

My sentence does not list any qualifiers in this regard, no "if allowed by law" or "if the statute allows", no nothing.

Doesnt the final wording within the sentencing document reign supreme?

This is in the state of Utah if that matters.

Thanks to anyone in advance who may be able to add some clarity here.

Location: Utah